napkin solutions > Hatcher
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2.1.2
2.1.4
2.1.6
2.1.11
2.1.12
2.1.13
2.1.2
#
AT-2.1.2.
Show that the
Δ-
complex obtained from
Δ
3
by performing the order-preserving edge identifica
tions
[
𝑣
0
,
𝑣
1
]
∼
[
𝑣
1
,
𝑣
3
]
and
[
𝑣
0
,
𝑣
2
]
∼
[
𝑣
2
,
𝑣
3
]
deformation retracts onto a Klein bottle. Also, find other pairs
of identifications of edges that produce
Δ-
complexes deformation retracting onto a torus, a 2-sphere, and
ℝ
P
2
.
Solution
by
Jihyeon Kim (
김지현
) (
simnalamburt)
𝑣
0
𝑣
1
𝑣
2
𝑣
3
𝑣
0
𝑣
1
𝑣
2
𝑣
3
𝑣
0
𝑣
1
𝑣
2
𝑣
3
𝑣
0
𝑣
1
𝑣
2
𝑣
3
Figure 1: Deformation retract onto a Klein bottle
2.1.4
#
AT-2.1.4.
Compute the simplicial homology groups of the triangular parachute obtained from
Δ
2
by
identifying its three vertices to a single point.
Solution
by
finalchild
The complex has one 0-simplex.
𝐻
Δ
0
(
𝑋
)
=
ℤ
The complex has three 1-simplex, which is all a cycle, where
𝑎
+
𝑏
+
𝑐
forms a boundary.
𝐻
Δ
1
(
𝑋
)
=
ℤ
2
The complex has one 2-simplex, which is not a cycle.
𝐻
Δ
2
(
𝑋
)
=
0
The complex has no
𝑛
-simplex where
𝑛
≥
3
.
𝐻
Δ
𝑛
(
𝑋
)
=
0
(
𝑛
≥
3
)
2.1.6
#
AT-2.1.6.
Compute the simplicial homology groups of the
Δ
-complex obtained from
𝑛
+
1
2-simplices
Δ
2
0
,
⋯
,
Δ
2
𝑛
by identifying all three edges of
Δ
2
0
to a single edge, and for
𝑖
>
0
identifying the edges
[
𝑣
0
,
𝑣
1
]
and
[
𝑣
1
,
𝑣
2
]
of
Δ
2
𝑖
to a single edge and the edge
[
𝑣
0
,
𝑣
2
]
to the edge
[
𝑣
0
,
𝑣
1
]
of
Δ
2
𝑖
−
1
.
Solution
by
Jineon Baek (
백진언
) (
xtalclr)
Call the space
𝑋
. Call the 2-simplex generators
𝑓
0
,
…
,
𝑓
𝑛
. Call the edge
[
𝑣
0
,
𝑣
1
]
of
Δ
2
𝑖
as
𝑒
𝑖
. Identifying all
the edges as told, we can see that
𝑒
0
,
…
,
𝑒
𝑛
are all the representators of the identifications done on the edges
(that is, every edge is identified with exactly one of
𝑒
0
,
…
,
𝑒
𝑛
). So they form the 1-simplex generators of
𝑋
.
The space
𝑋
has only one 0-simplex: all points of
Δ
2
0
are identified, then
𝑣
0
of
Δ
2
𝑖
is identified with
𝑣
0
of
Δ
2
𝑖
−
1
, then
[
𝑣
0
,
𝑣
1
]
=
[
𝑣
1
,
𝑣
2
]
on
Δ
2
𝑖
.
With all this, we now have a complete understanding of the chain maps. Under
𝜕
, each generator maps as
follows.
•
𝑓
0
maps to
𝑒
0
−
𝑒
0
+
𝑒
0
=
𝑒
0
•
For
𝑖
>
0
,
𝑓
𝑖
maps to
[
𝑣
0
,
𝑣
1
]
−
[
𝑣
0
,
𝑣
2
]
+
[
𝑣
1
,
𝑣
2
]
=
2
𝑒
𝑖
−
𝑒
𝑖
−
1
.
•
All edges map to zero as we have only one point.
Now we compute the homology.
•
𝜕
on
𝐶
2
(
𝑋
)
is injective and we have
𝐻
2
(
𝑋
)
=
0
.
•
The homology
𝐻
1
(
𝑋
)
is
⨁
𝑖
ℤ
𝑒
𝑖
factored out by the image of
𝜕
:
𝐶
2
(
𝑋
)
→
𝐶
1
(
𝑋
)
. This identifies
𝑒
0
=
0
and
2
𝑒
𝑖
=
𝑒
𝑖
−
1
. So we have
𝐻
1
(
𝑋
)
≅
ℤ
/
2
𝑛
ℤ
. See the proof below.
‣
Define the map
ℤ
→
𝐻
1
(
𝑋
)
by setting
𝑧
↦
𝑧
𝑒
𝑛
. The map is surjective: repeatedly use
𝑒
𝑖
−
1
=
2
𝑒
𝑖
to
push any element of
𝐻
1
(
𝑋
)
to the form
𝑧
𝑒
𝑛
. The kernel of the map contains
2
𝑛
so now we have the
map
ℤ
/
2
𝑛
ℤ
→
𝐻
1
(
𝑋
)
. The inverse
𝐻
1
(
𝑋
)
→
ℤ
/
2
𝑛
ℤ
is
𝑒
𝑖
↦
2
𝑛
−
𝑖
(it is routine to check that the maps
are well-defined inverse of each other; track the generators).
•
We have
𝐻
0
(
𝑋
)
≅
ℤ
as
𝑋
is nonzero and connected.
𝐻
𝑛
(
𝑋
)
=
0
for all
𝑛
≥
3
by dimensionality.
2.1.11
#
AT-2.1.11.
Show that if
𝐴
is a retract of
𝑋
then the map
𝐻
𝑛
(
𝐴
)
→
𝐻
𝑛
(
𝑋
)
induced by the inclusion
𝐴
⊂
𝑋
is injective.
Solution
by
finalchild
The retract is the left inverse of the inclusion. By functoriality, the map induced by the retract is the left
inverse of the map induced by the inclusion. Thus, the map induced by the inclusion is injective.
∎
2.1.12
#
AT-2.1.12.
Show that chain homotopy of chain maps is an equivalence relation.
Solution
by
kiwiyou
Given two chain maps
𝑓
♯
,
𝑔
♯
:
𝐶
𝑛
(
𝑋
)
→
𝐶
𝑛
(
𝑌
)
, let’s say
𝑓
♯
∼
𝑔
♯
if there exists a chain homotopy
𝑃
:
𝐶
𝑛
(
𝑋
)
→
𝐶
𝑛
+
1
(
𝑌
)
.
We want to show that
∼
is an equivalence relation.
1. Reflexivity
𝑓
♯
−
𝑓
♯
=
0
=
𝜕
(
0
)
+
0
=
𝜕
𝟎
+
𝟎
𝜕
∎
2. Symmetry
𝑓
♯
∼
𝑔
♯
⟹
∃
𝑃
:
𝜕
𝑃
+
𝑃
𝜕
=
𝑔
♯
−
𝑓
♯
⟹
∃
𝑃
:
𝜕
(
−
𝑃
)
+
(
−
𝑃
)
𝜕
=
𝑓
♯
−
𝑔
♯
⟹
𝑔
♯
∼
𝑓
♯
∎
3. Transitivity
Let’s introduce another chain map
ℎ
♯
:
𝐶
𝑛
(
𝑋
)
→
𝐶
𝑛
+
1
(
𝑌
)
.
𝑓
♯
∼
𝑔
♯
∧
𝑔
♯
∼
ℎ
♯
⟹
∃
𝑃
,
𝑄
:
𝜕
𝑃
+
𝑃
𝜕
=
𝑔
♯
−
𝑓
♯
∧
𝜕
𝑄
+
𝑄
𝜕
=
ℎ
♯
−
𝑔
♯
⟹
∃
𝑃
,
𝑄
:
𝜕
(
𝑃
+
𝑄
)
+
(
𝑃
+
𝑄
)
𝜕
=
ℎ
♯
−
𝑓
♯
⟹
𝑓
♯
∼
ℎ
♯
∎
2.1.13
#
AT-2.1.13.
Verify that
𝑓
≅
𝑔
implies
𝑓
∗
=
𝑔
∗
for induced homomorphisms of reduced homology groups.
Solution
by
Jineon Baek (
백진언
) (
xtalclr)
We first parse the problem.
•
The maps
𝑓
,
𝑔
:
𝑋
→
𝑌
are continuous maps from topological space
𝑋
to
𝑌
.
•
That
𝑓
≅
𝑔
means that there is a homotopy
𝐻
:
𝐼
×
𝑋
→
𝑌
from
𝑓
to
𝑔
‣
so that
𝐻
is continuous, and
𝐻
(
0
,
−
)
=
𝑓
, and
𝐻
(
1
,
−
)
=
𝑔
•
The maps
𝑓
∗
,
𝑔
∗
:
̃
𝐻
𝑛
(
𝑋
)
→
̃
𝐻
𝑛
(
𝑌
)
are induced homomorphisms of
reduced
homology groups (p113).
‣
We will call them
̃
𝑓
∗
,
̃
𝑔
∗
instead to be explicit that we are talking about
reduced
homology.
‣
Side note: the maps
𝑓
#
,
𝑔
#
are induced homomorphisms on chains (p110).
Recall that even for
non-reduced
homology groups, showing
𝑓
∗
=
𝑔
∗
was a nontrivial task (Theorem 2.10).
The proof constructed the prism operator
𝑃
:
𝐶
𝑛
(
𝑋
)
→
𝐶
𝑛
+
1
(
𝑌
)
so that it satisfies the relation
𝜕
𝑃
=
𝑔
#
−
𝑓
#
−
𝑃
𝜕
on every dimension
𝑛
. Here we consider
𝑔
#
,
𝑓
#
be on dimension
𝑛
. Consequently, the
𝑃
on left-hand side is
𝑃
:
𝐶
𝑛
(
𝑋
)
→
𝐶
𝑛
+
1
(
𝑌
)
and the right-hand side is
𝑃
:
𝐶
𝑛
−
1
(
𝑋
)
→
𝐶
𝑛
(
𝑌
)
.
Our job now is to modify the prism operator and the equation above for reduced cohomology. Call the
corresponding homomorphisms on
reduced
chains
̃
𝑓
#
,
̃
𝑔
#
to avoid confusion.
1.
The only difference with
𝑓
#
,
𝑔
#
and
̃
𝑓
#
,
̃
𝑔
#
is that, at dimension
−
1
, we have
̃
𝑓
#
,
̃
𝑔
#
:
ℤ
→
ℤ
instead of
𝑓
#
,
𝑔
#
:
0
→
0
.
2.
So define
̃
𝑃
:
̃
𝐶
𝑛
(
𝑋
)
→
̃
𝐶
𝑛
+
1
(
𝑌
)
the same as
𝑃
for dimension
𝑛
≠
−
1
,
−
2
(you don’t have any difference
in domain and range). For
𝑛
=
−
2
, you don’t have a choice but set
̃
𝑃
to zero as
̃
𝐶
−
2
(
𝑋
)
=
0
. We will
postpone deciding
̃
𝑃
for dimension
𝑛
=
−
1
.
3.
By 2 only, the equation
𝜕
̃
𝑃
=
̃
𝑔
#
−
̃
𝑓
#
−
̃
𝑃
𝜕
is already satisfied for
𝑛
≠
0
,
−
1
as it does not have any
difference with original
𝜕
𝑃
=
𝑔
#
−
𝑓
#
−
𝑃
𝜕
.
4.
For
𝑛
=
0
, we have
𝜕
̃
𝑃
=
𝜕
𝑃
=
𝑔
#
−
𝑓
#
−
𝑃
𝜕
=
̃
𝑔
#
−
̃
𝑓
#
−
𝑃
𝜕
that we need to match with
̃
𝑔
#
−
̃
𝑓
#
−
̃
𝑃
𝜕
. What we get is that
𝑃
𝜕
=
̃
𝑃
𝜕
for dimension zero. As
𝑃
:
𝐶
−
1
(
𝑋
)
→
𝐶
0
(
𝑌
)
should be a zero map (as
𝐶
−
1
(
𝑋
)
=
0
) a natural guess is to set
̃
𝑃
:
𝐶
−
1
(
𝑋
)
→
𝐶
0
(
𝑌
)
to be the zero map too. Let us do so, and this
clears up proving the equation for
𝑛
=
0
.
5.
It remains to show
𝜕
̃
𝑃
=
̃
𝑔
#
−
̃
𝑓
#
−
̃
𝑃
𝜕
for
𝑛
=
−
1
. The left-hand side is a zero map by definition (see 4
above).
̃
𝑓
#
,
̃
𝑔
#
:
ℤ
→
ℤ
are identity maps so they cancel out. It remains to verify
̃
𝑃
𝜕
=
0
but recall that,
in step 2 above, we set
̃
𝑃
:
̃
𝐶
−
2
(
𝑋
)
→
̃
𝐶
−
1
(
𝑋
)
to be zero. So this equation is verified.
With all this, we defined the prism operator
̃
𝑃
:
̃
𝐶
𝑛
(
𝑋
)
→
̃
𝐶
𝑛
+
1
(
𝑌
)
for reduced homology and verified
the equation
𝜕
̃
𝑃
=
̃
𝑔
#
−
̃
𝑓
#
−
̃
𝑃
𝜕
. So there is a chain homotopy between
̃
𝑓
#
and
̃
𝑔
#
, and thus
̃
𝑓
∗
=
̃
𝑔
∗
(Proposition 2.12, that chain-homotopic chain maps induce the same homomorphisms on homology).
Note.
Why bother with
̃
𝑃
when you can do the casework using
𝐻
𝑛
(
𝑋
)
=
̃
𝐻
𝑛
(
𝑋
)
for
𝑛
≠
0
and
𝐻
0
(
𝑋
)
≅
̃
𝐻
0
(
𝑋
)
⊕
ℤ
for nonempty
𝑋
? My line of thought was that (i) the proof above would be safe in terms of
naturality (I have to admit I don’t know exactly what I am talking about) but I fear that such ‘exceptional’
casework might lead to some faliure in preserving naturality, and that (ii) the casework would be quite messy
considering cases of
𝑋
or
𝑌
being empty or not too. Feel free to prove me wrong and come up with a cleaner
proof instead.