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Problem 10C
Problem 10D
Problem 10G
Problem 10C
#
Problem 10C
(Switccharoo)
.
Let
𝑉
be the
ℂ
-vector space with basis
𝑒
1
and
𝑒
2
. The map
𝑇
:
𝑉
→
𝑉
sends
𝑇
(
𝑒
1
)
=
𝑒
2
and
𝑇
(
𝑒
2
)
=
𝑒
1
. Determine the eigenspaces of
𝑇
.
Solution
by
RanolP
∀
𝑣
∈
𝑉
,
𝑣
can be expressed as
𝑎
𝑒
1
+
𝑏
𝑒
2
.
𝑇
(
𝑣
)
=
𝑇
(
𝑎
𝑒
1
+
𝑏
𝑒
2
)
=
𝑎
𝑇
(
𝑒
1
)
+
𝑏
𝑇
(
𝑒
2
)
=
𝑎
𝑒
2
+
𝑏
𝑒
1
If
𝑣
is an eigenvector of
𝑇
,
∃
𝜆
𝜆
(
𝑎
𝑒
1
+
𝑏
𝑒
2
)
=
𝜆
𝑣
=
𝑇
(
𝑣
)
=
𝑎
𝑒
2
+
𝑏
𝑒
1
Multiplication is distributive, so
𝜆
𝑎
𝑒
1
+
𝜆
𝑏
𝑒
2
=
𝑎
𝑒
2
+
𝑏
𝑒
1
.
Since they’re basis, they’re linear independent, so
𝜆
𝑎
=
𝑏
and
𝜆
𝑏
=
𝑎
.
Thus, we get
𝜆
2
𝑏
=
𝑏
and
𝜆
2
𝑎
=
𝑎
. Since it’s eigenvector,
𝑎
and
𝑏
cannot be both zero.
Thus if
𝑎
≠
0
,
𝜆
2
𝑎
𝑎
=
𝑎
𝑎
, so
𝜆
=
±
1
Otherwise
𝑏
≠
0
,
𝜆
2
𝑏
𝑏
=
𝑏
𝑏
, so
𝜆
=
±
1
The eigenvalue is determined. Let’s find eigenspaces.
•
For
1
-eigenspace
𝑎
𝑒
1
+
𝑏
𝑒
2
=
𝑎
𝑒
2
+
𝑏
𝑒
1
, in other words
𝑎
(
𝑒
1
+
𝑒
2
)
(where
𝑎
≠
0
∈
ℂ
).
The space is spanned by
𝑒
1
+
𝑒
2
•
For
−
1
-eigenspace
−
(
𝑎
𝑒
1
+
𝑏
𝑒
2
)
=
𝑎
𝑒
2
+
𝑏
𝑒
1
, in other words
𝑎
(
𝑒
1
−
𝑒
2
)
(where
𝑎
≠
0
∈
ℂ
).
The space is spanned by
𝑒
1
−
𝑒
2
.
Problem 10D
#
Problem 10D.
Suppose
𝑇
:
ℂ
⊕
2
→
ℂ
⊕
2
is a linear map of
ℂ
-vector spaces such that
𝑇
2
0
1
1
=
id
. Must
𝑇
be
diagonalizable?
Solution
by
kiwiyou
Yes.
Proof.
𝑇
has
2
×
2
Jordan form, which can contain (1) two
1
×
1
Jordan blocks, or (2) one
2
×
2
Jordan block.
(1)
Jordan form is
𝐽
=
(
𝜆
1
0
0
𝜆
2
)
, which is trivially diagonalizable.
(2)
Jordan form is
𝐽
=
(
𝜆
0
1
𝜆
)
, then
𝐽
2
0
1
1
=
(
𝜆
2
0
1
1
0
2
0
1
1
𝜆
2
0
1
0
𝜆
2
0
1
1
)
=
𝐼
Since
2
0
1
1
𝜆
2
0
1
0
=
0
,
𝜆
=
0
but
0
=
𝜆
2
0
1
1
=
1
, which is contradiction.
Therefore
𝑇
is diagonalizable.
∎
Problem 10G
#
Problem 10G
(Differentiation of functions)
.
Let
𝑉
be the infinite-dimensional real vector space of all
infinitely differentiable functions
ℝ
→
ℝ
. Note that
𝑑
𝑑
𝑥
:
𝑉
→
𝑉
is a linear map (for example it sends
cos
𝑥
to
−
sin
𝑥
). Which real numbers are eigenvalues of this map?
Solution
by
kiwiyou
All numbers.
Proof.
For all
𝑘
∈
ℝ
, consider infinitely differentiable function
𝑓
:
ℝ
→
ℝ
=
𝑥
↦
𝑒
𝑘
𝑥
, then
𝑑
𝑓
𝑑
𝑥
=
𝑘
𝑒
𝑘
𝑥
=
𝑘
𝑓
Therefore, every real number
𝑘
is eigenvalue.
∎